[Oldcath-l] Creedal clarification: Fulfillment vs accordance

[+ Marty]

Thanks Greg,
Very informative!

Blessings,
 
+Marty
 
Smile, God Loves You

-----Original Message-----
From: oldcath-l-bounces at stsams.org [mailto:oldcath-l-bounces at stsams.org] On
Behalf Of Fr. Gregory Ned Blevins
Sent: Saturday, July 14, 2007 2:57 AM
To: Old Catholic Discussion List
Subject: Re: [Oldcath-l] Creedal clarification: Fulfillment vs accordance

Actually, it was in place by AD 381, from the First
Council of Constantinople, which expanded upon the
Creed of Nicea (AD 325) and deleted the anathemas. 
This Creed was then ratified by Ephesus (431) as THE
Creed (without the filioque). The Armenian Church uses
the Creed of Nicea, with anathemas, not the Creed of
Nicea-Constantinople, which we know was "the Nicene
Creed".

Here are the two in Greek:

http://www.creeds.net/ancient/niceneg.htm

And here is the original Creed of the First Council of
Nicea, in English, with anathemas.

http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf214.vii.iii.html

The phrase in question, in transliterated Greek, is
"kata tas graphas" and comes directly from I Cor. 15:
3-4. All of the more-or-less literal English versions
that I can easily access at this moment translate this
as "according to" or "in accordance with" the
scriptures, to include the KJV, the RSV, Douay-Rheims,
NAB, and the Jerusalem Bible.  None of the less
literal ones render "in fulfillment of" but use
phrases like "as the Scriptures say".

Further, according to a concordance I have (Young's),
the KJV translates "kata" with its object in the
accusative (as above) as "according to" in a large
majority of cases.

So, I'm not sure where ICEL/ICET got "in fulfillment
of" although I think I know what they were thinking. 
When St. Paul writes, in I Cor., that Christ died and
rose again "according to the Scriptures," he can only
be referring to what we know as the Old Testament
which, of course, does not document the death and
resurrection of Christ, but, according to the
Christian understanding, prophesies the life, death,
and resurrection of the Messiah.  Therefore, the sense
of "according to" in this case is in fact "in
fulfillment of" the "Scriptures" of the Old Testament.
 They therefore may have rendered this as they did to
underscore the fact that neither St. Paul, nor the
Creed, is referring to the writings about Christ as
found in the New Testament.

Hope that helps.

Fr. Greg
     
--- + Marty <FrMarty_Patton at fuse.net> wrote:

> Jeff,
> You are not the first to have a question on
> [secundum Scripturas] it was not
> in the original(381) but added and made an official
> part in C of Trent in
> 1546. 'In fulfillment of' comes into play after the
> Reformation, IMHO just
> to be different because of 'sola scriptura'. Older
> writings you see
> 'secundum' translated 'in accordance with'.
> 'According to' appears to be a
> nicety of the translator :) 'secundum' can be
> translate 'accordingly' or 'in
> an accordance with'. I don't have the ability to
> compare the original Greek.



       
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